Candidates for this exam are database administrators and data management
specialists that manage on-premises and cloud relational databases built on top
of Microsoft SQL Server and Microsoft Azure data services.
The Azure Database Administrator implements and manages the operational aspects
of cloud-native and hybrid data platform solutions built on Microsoft Azure data
services and Microsoft SQL Server. The Azure Database Administrator uses a
variety of methods and tools to perform day-to-day operations, including
applying knowledge of using T-SQL for administrative management purposes.
This role is responsible for management, availability, security, and performance
monitoring and optimization of modern relational database solutions. This role
works with the Azure Data Engineer role to manage operational aspects of data
platform solutions.
Beta exams are not scored immediately because we are gathering data on the
quality of the questions and the exam. Learn more about the value and importance
of beta exams.
Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Azure Database Administrator
Associate
Skills measured
Plan and implement data platform resources (15-20%)
Implement a secure environment (15-20%)
Monitor and optimize operational resources (15-20%)
Optimize query performance (5-10%)
Perform automation of tasks (10-15%)
Plan and implement a High Availability and Disaster Recovery (HADR) environment
(15-20%)
Perform administration by using T-SQL (10-15%)
Audience Profile Candidates for this exam are database administrators and data management
specialists that manage on-premises and cloud relational databases built
on top of SQL Server and Azure Data Services.
The Azure Database Administrator implements and manages the operational aspects
of cloud-native and hybrid data platform solutions built on Azure Data Services
and SQL Server. The Azure Database Administrator uses a variety of methods and
tools to perform day-to-day operations, including applying knowledge of using
T-SQL for administrative management purposes.
This role is responsible for management, availability, security and performance
monitoring and optimization of modern relational database solutions. This role
works with the Azure Data Engineer role to manage operational aspects of data
platform solutions.
Skills Measured NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended
to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive
or exhaustive.
NOTE: In most cases, exams do NOT cover preview features, and some features will
only be added to an exam when they are GA (General Availability).
Plan and Implement Data Platform Resources (15-20%) Deploy resources by using manual methods
• deploy database offerings on selected platforms
• configure customized deployment templates
• apply patches and updates for hybrid and IaaS deployment
Recommend an appropriate database offering based on specific requirements • evaluate requirements for the deployment
• evaluate the functional benefits/impact of possible database offerings
• evaluate the scalability of the possible database offering
• evaluate the HA/DR of the possible database offering
• evaluate the security aspects of the possible database offering
Configure resources for scale and performance • configure Azure SQL database/elastic pools for scale and performance
• configure Azure SQL managed instances for scale and performance
• configure SQL Server in Azure VMs for scale and performance
• calculate resource requirements
• evaluate database partitioning techniques, such as database sharding
Evaluate a strategy for moving to Azure • evaluate requirements for the migration
• evaluate offline or online migration strategies
• evaluate requirements for the upgrade
• evaluate offline or online upgrade strategies
Implement a migration or upgrade strategy for moving to Azure
• implement an online migration strategy
• implement an offline migration strategy
• implement an online upgrade strategy
• implement an offline upgrade strategy
Implement a Secure Environment (15-20%)
Configure database authentication by using platform and database tools
• configure Azure AD authentication
• create users from Azure AD identities
• configure security principals
Configure database authorization by using platform and database tools
• configure database and object-level permissions using graphical tools
• apply principle of least privilege for all securables
Implement security for data at rest • implement Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
• implement object-level encryption
• implement Dynamic Data Masking
• implement Azure Key Vault and disk encryption for Azure VMs
Implement security for data in transit • configure SQL DB and database-level firewall rules
• implement Always Encrypted
• configure Azure Data Gateway
Implement compliance controls for sensitive data • apply a data classification strategy
• configure server and database audits
• implement data change tracking
• perform vulnerability assessment
Monitor and Optimize Operational Resources (15-20%)
Monitor activity and performance
• prepare an operational performance baseline
• determine sources for performance metrics
• interpret performance metrics
• assess database performance by using Azure SQL Database Intelligent
Performance
• configure and monitor activity and performance at the infrastructure, server,
service, and
database levels
Implement performance-related maintenance tasks • implement index maintenance tasks
• implement statistics maintenance tasks
• configure database auto-tuning
• automate database maintenance tasks
o Azure SQL agent jobs, Azure automation, SQL server agent jobs
• manage storage capacity
Identify performance-related issues • configure Query Store to collect performance data
• identify sessions that cause blocking
• assess growth/fragmentation of databases and logs
• assess performance-related database configuration parameters
o including AutoClose, AutoShrink, AutoGrowth
Configure resources for optimal performance • configure storage and infrastructure resources
o optimize IOPS, throughput, and latency
o optimize tempdb performance
o optimize data and log files for performance
• configure server and service account settings for performance
• configure Resource Governor for performance
Configure a user database for optimal performance
• implement database-scoped configuration
• configure compute resources for scaling
• configure Intelligent Query Processing (IQP)
Optimize Query Performance (5-10%)
Review query plans
• determine the appropriate type of execution plan
o live Query Statistics, Actual Execution Plan, Estimated Execution Plan,
Showplan
• identify problem areas in execution plans
• extract query plans from the Query Store
Evaluate performance improvements
• determine the appropriate Dynamic Management Views (DMVs) to gather query
performance information
• identify performance issues using DMVs
• identify and implement index changes for queries
• recommend query construct modifications based on resource usage
• assess the use of hints for query performance
Review database table and index design
• identify data quality issues with duplication of data
• identify normal form of database
• assess index design for performance
• validate data types defined for columns
• recommend table and index storage including filegroups
• evaluate table partitioning strategy
• evaluate the use of compression for tables and indexes
Perform Automation of Tasks (10-15%)
Create scheduled tasks
• manage schedules for regular maintenance jobs
• configure multi-server automation
• configure notifications for task success/failure/non-completion
Evaluate and implement an alert and notification strategy
• create event notifications based on metrics
• create event notifications for Azure resources
• create alerts for server configuration changes
• create tasks that respond to event notifications
Manage and automate tasks in Azure
• perform automated deployment methods for resources
• automate Backups
• automate performance tuning and patching
• implement policies by using automated evaluation modes
Plan and Implement a High Availability and Disaster Recovery (HADR)
Environment (15-20%)
Recommend an HADR strategy for a data platform solution
• recommend HADR strategy based on RPO/RTO requirements
• evaluate HADR for hybrid deployments
• evaluate Azure-specific HADR solutions
• identify resources for HADR solutions
Test an HADR strategy by using platform, OS and database tools
• test HA by using failover
• test DR by using failover or restore
Perform backup and restore a database by using database tools
• perform a database backup with options
• perform a database restore with options
• perform a database restore to a point in time
• configure long-term backup retention
Configure DR by using platform and database tools
• configure replication
• configure Azure Site Recovery for a database offering
Configure HA using platform, OS and database tools
• create an Availability Group
• integrate a database into an Availability Group
• configure quorum options for a Windows Server Failover Cluster
• configure an Availability Group listener
Perform Administration by Using T-SQL (10-15%)
Examine system health
• evaluate database health using DMVs
• evaluate server health using DMVs
• perform database consistency checks by using DBCC
Monitor database configuration by using T-SQL
• assess proper database autogrowth configuration
• report on database free space
• review database configuration options
Perform backup and restore a database by using T-SQL
• prepare databases for AlwaysOn Availability Groups
• perform transaction log backup
• perform restore of user databases
• perform database backups with options
• configure permissions for users to access database objects
• configure permissions by using custom roles
QUESTION 1 You have a Microsoft SQL Server 2019 instance in an on-premises datacenter.
The instance contains a 4-TB database named DB1.
You plan to migrate DB1 to an Azure SQL Database managed instance.
What should you use to minimize downtime and data loss during the migration?
A. distributed availability groups
B. database mirroring
C. log shipping
D. Database Migration Assistant
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 You have 20 Azure SQL databases provisioned by using the vCore purchasing
model.
You plan to create an Azure SQL Database elastic pool and add the 20 databases.
Which three metrics should you use to size the elastic pool to meet the demands
of your workload? Each
correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. total size of all the databases
B. geo-replication support
C. number of concurrently peaking databases * peak CPU utilization per database
D. maximum number of concurrent sessions for all the databases
E. total number of databases * average CPU utilization per database
Correct Answer: A,C,E
QUESTION 3 You have a new Azure SQL database. The database contains a column that
stores confidential information.
You need to track each time values from the column are returned in a query. The
tracking information must be
stored for 365 days from the date the query was executed.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Turn on auditing and write audit logs to an Azure Storage account.
B. Add extended properties to the column.
C. Turn on Advanced Data Security for the Azure SQL server.
D. Apply sensitivity labels named Highly Confidential to the column.
E. Turn on Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP).
IISFA II0-001 Certified Information Forensics Investigator (CIFI)
The Certified Information Forensics Investigator, (CIFI) Certification is a
designation earned exclusively by the most qualified information forensic
professionals in the field. Along with adherence to the highest standards of
ethical conduct, the CIFI epitomizes the highest standards in knowledge
requirements and expertise. The CIFI encompasses multiple domains of knowledge,
practical experience, and a demonstration of expertise and understanding
accomplished through a rigorous exam proctored under the most controlled of
environments. Unlike many vendor certifications, the CIFI maintains vendor
neutrality and is independent of dependency requirements such as sponsored
training, purchasing of product, or requirements other than ability. In fact,
candidates may choose to sit for the exam without any restrictions other than
adherence to the IISFA code of ethics and the exam fee. The CIFI is recognized
as the only certification that truly represents the abilities of field
information forensics investigators and is the benchmark by which they are
measured. Earning the CIFI designation is a significant accomplishment and
identifies the best in the profession of information forensics investigator.
The Certified Information Forensics Investigator, (CIFI) Certification is
specifically developed for experienced information forensics investigators who
have practical experience in performing investigation for law enforcement or as
part of a corporate investigations team. The CIFI certification is designed to
demonstrate expertise in all aspects of the information investigative process
and is dedicated to bringing a level of consistency to the profession than can
be recognized outside the field.
CIFI Impacts Your Career and Your Organization Enterprises demand Forensics Investigator that possess the knowledge and
expertise to help them identify critical issues and customize practices to
support trust in and value from information systems.The skills and practices
that CIFI promotes and evaluates are the building blocks of success in the
field. Possessing the CIFI demonstrates proficiency and is the basis for
measurement in the profession.
CIFI Certification: Confirms your knowledge and experience
Quantifies and markets your expertise
Demonstrates that you have gained and maintained the level of knowledge required
to meet the dynamic challenges of a modern enterpriseIs
Is globally recognized as the mark of excellence for the Forensics Professional
Combines the achievement of passing a comprehensive exam with recognition of
work and educational experience, providing you with credibility in the
marketplace.
Increases your value to your organization
Gives you a competitive advantage over peers when seeking job growth
Helps you achieve a high professional standard through IISFA's requirements for
continuing education and ethical conduct
QUESTION 1
Firewalls are an excellent source of:
A. Details of system usage
B. Details of protocol usage
C. Forensic Evidence for malicious attacks
D. Port/service mappings
Answer: C
QUESTION 2 What technique of layered security design will allow for both investigation
and recovery after an incident?
A. RI Technology
B. Highly available systems
C. Overlap design approach
D. Honeypot placement
Answer: B
QUESTION 3
If a CIFI violates the ISFA code of Ethics, her CIFI certification can be
immediately revoked.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION 4 The 1st amendment allows hackers to exercise free speech by altering content
on websites to express opposing viewpoints.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION 5 The term "Browser Artifacts" refer to:
A. Web browser cache, cookies, favorites, history, auto complete information
B. Older web browser applications that have little or no security and allow for
unchecked use
C. Older web browser applications that can be used as a surveillance tool for
investigators due to their lack of security
D. Web browser cookies
Answer: A
QUESTION 6 All of the following are methods of auditing except:
A. Internal audit
B. External audit
C. Thorough audit
D. 3rd party audit
CBAP Eligibility To earn the CBAP designation, candidates must:
Complete a minimum of 7,500 hours of Business Analysis Work experience in the
last 10 years.
Within this experience, a minimum of 900 hours completed in 4 of the 6 BABOK®
Guide Knowledge Areas, for a total of at least 3,600 of the required 7,500
total.
Complete a minimum of 35 hours of Professional Development in the last 4 years.
Provide two references.
Agree to Code of Conduct.
Agree to Terms and Conditions.
Pass the exam.
CBAP Competencies
Is CBAP right for you? The CBAP certification is for:
Individuals with significant experience in business analysis
Individuals with a CCBA™ designation
Product Managers
Non-BA consultants
Trainers
Hybrid Business Analysis professionals, including: Project Manager, Testers,
Quality Assurance (QA) professionals, Change/Transformation Managers, and
Designers
Highlight Your Expertise The Certified Business Analysis Professional™ (CBAP®) offers members of the
BA community a variety of benefits, including:
Demonstrated senior knowledge and professional competence
Marketability, employability and earning potential
Success and path to leadership
CBAP recognizes your expertise in multiple business domains and your ability to
tackle more complex projects, work with stakeholders to define and manage their
business requirements, drive business processes, lead the BA effort, and
identify opportunities to achieve better business results.
The IIBA® Annual Business Analysis Salary Survey reports that the average salary
of respondents with CBAP® certification holders is 13% higher on average in
earnings in comparison to non-certification holders.
QUESTION 1 What is the term used to describe the cost of the solution after the
solution has been implemented in production by a vendor?
A. Total ownership costing
B. Lifecycle maintenance fees
C. Sustainability fees
D. Total cost of ownership
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Enterprise analysis creates just five outputs.
Which one of the following is an output of the enterprise analysis tasks?
A. Assumptions and constraints
B. Stakeholder concerns
C. Solution performance assessment
D. Solution approach
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 All of the following stakeholders participate in the prioritization of
requirements except for which one?
A. Implementation subject matter expert
B. Project team
C. Domain subject matter expert
D. Project manager
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 You are the business analyst for your organization. Management has asked
that you create a model of the
requirements so the stakeholders can better understand the requirements and the
project as a whole.
Which of the following statements best describes a model?
A. Models are slices of the project solution.
B. Models simplify the requirements for common stakeholders.
C. Models are statistics for the return on investment, time saved, and other
mathematics.
D. Models abstract and simplify reality.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 What plan will describe the stakeholder groups, communication needs, and the
level of formality that is appropriate for the requirements?
A. Requirements management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Scope management plan
D. Business analysis communication plan
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 You are the business analyst for a smaller project where there are few
requirements. Management would still like you to create a method to trace the
few requirements for this project.
What type of matrix would be best in this instance?
A. Roles and responsibility matrix
B. RACI matrix
C. Coverage matrix
D. Requirements trace matrix
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 You are the business analyst for your organization and have many solutions
available to an identified problem.
You would like a way to quickly and fairly determine which solution is the best
choice for your organization.
Which of the following approaches would allow you to determine the top-rated
solutions for your organization?
A. Scoring system
B. Acceptance and evaluation criteria
C. Vendor assessment
D. Voting system
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 When an organization is using a change-driven approach to business analysis,
how are communications managed?
A. Communications in a change-driven approach to business analysis focus more on
the frequency of communication.
B. Communications in a change-driven approach typically use face-to-face
channels.
C. Communications in a change-driven approach focus more on formal
communications.
D. Communications in a change-driven approach are all ad hoc.
Certification: Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate
Duration: 120 minutes (95 - 105 questions)
Available languages: English
Exam overview This exam tests your knowledge and skills related to:
Security concepts
Security monitoring
Host-based analysis
Network intrusion analysis
Security policies and procedures
Exam Description The Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (200-201
CBROPS) exam is a 120-minute assessment that is associated with the Cisco
Certified CyberOps Associate certification. The CBROPS exam tests a candidate’s
knowledge and skills related to security concepts, security monitoring,
host-based analysis, network intrusion analysis, and security policies and
procedures. The course, Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
Fundamentals, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be
included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any
specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and
for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without
notice.
1.1 Describe the CIA triad
1.2 Compare security deployments
1.2.a Network, endpoint, and application security systems
1.2.b Agentless and agent-based protections
1.2.c Legacy antivirus and antimalware
1.2.d SIEM, SOAR, and log management
1.3 Describe security terms
1.3.a Threat intelligence (TI)
1.3.b Threat hunting
1.3.c Malware analysis
1.3.d Threat actor
1.3.e Run book automation (RBA)
1.3.f Reverse engineering
1.3.g Sliding window anomaly detection
1.3.h Principle of least privilege
1.3.i Zero trust
1.3.j Threat intelligence platform (TIP)
1.5 Describe the principles of the defense-in-depth strategy
1.6 Compare access control models
1.6.a Discretionary access control
1.6.b Mandatory access control
1.6.c Nondiscretionary access control
1.6.d Authentication, authorization, accounting
1.6.e Rule-based access control
1.6.f Time-based access control
1.6.g Role-based access control
4.9 Interpret common artifact elements from an event to identify an alert
4.9.a IP address (source / destination)
4.9.b Client and server port identity
4.9.c Process (file or registry)
4.9.d System (API calls)
4.9.e Hashes
4.9.f URI / URL
5.10 Classify intrusion events into categories as defined by security models,
such as Cyber Kill Chain Model and Diamond Model of Intrusion
5.11 Describe the relationship of SOC metrics to scope analysis (time to detect,
time to contain, time to respond, time to control)
QUESTION 1
Which type of algorithm encrypts data bit by bit?
A. block
B. asymmetric
C. stream
D. symmetric
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which of the following is deployed on an endpoint as an agent or standalone
application?
A. NIPS
B. NGFW
C. HIDS
D. NIDS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which of the following represents an exploitable, unpatched, and unmitigated
weakness in software?
A. vulnerability
B. exploit
C. threat
D. breach
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which of the following describes a TCP injection attack?
A. Many TCP SYN packets are captures with the same sequence number, source, and
destination IP address, but different payloads.
B. there is an abnormally high volume of scanning from numerous sources
C. many TCP SYN packets are captured with the same sequence number, but
different source and destination IP addresses and different payloads
D. an attacker performs actions slower than normal
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 How are attributes of ownership and control of an object managed in Linux?
The Avaya Converged Platform Support Exam (76940X) is a requirement to earn
the Avaya Solutions Platform (ACSS – 7694) credential. This exam has 56
questions and the minimum passing score is 64%. The candidate has 105 minutes to
complete this exam.
Test Objectives The exam covers the following knowledge areas and learning objectives:
Architecture Describe the Components that make up the ASP 4200 product.
Identify the differences between a Co-delivery and a Full Avaya Support
installation.
Methodology and Support Tools Explain how to use the Avaya support ticketing tool.
Use the appropriate logs, tools, and files to collect a package of information
that will help in troubleshooting.
Describe the next level interfaces used on the OEM components (PDI, Servers,
VMware, EMC, etc.) for troubleshooting.
Maintenance Download and apply Server and Storage updates.
Download and apply PDU and Switch updates.
Download and upgrade VMware vCenter and ESXi platforms.
Identify the correct procedures used in preventative maintenance.
Perform backup and restore of solutions and applications related to ASP 4200.
Troubleshooting Describe general troubleshooting tasks.
Describe Quick Fix tasks.
Identify unsupported configurations in VMware.
Describe how to use PSN and KT documents during troubleshooting tasks.
Prerequisite Knowledge Review the credential learning map for any prerequisite information.
QUESTION 1 A support engineer is tasked with working on an ACP 4200 4.0 system.
Which three pieces of equipment would the engineer expect to find in the rack
that will differentiate the system from an earlier release of PodFx 3.X or CPOD
2.X? (Choose three.)
A. Dell R601 Servers
B. VSP 4824
C. HP Nimble Storage CS1000
D. HP Proliant DL360 G10 Servers
E. VSP 7254
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 2 Which equipment is standard in a new ACP 4200 4.0?
A. IP 7254
B. VSP 4850
C. IP 8284
D. VSP 7024
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which benefit does the available G450 Gateway provide to the ACP 4200
solution?
A. IP to H.323 translation
B. SIP to IP transition
C. IP to POTS transition
D. SIP to SIP negotiation
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 A support engineer is assigned to provide maintenance services for an ACP
4200 4.0 system.
Which type of organization could the engineer expect to be assigned to?
A. Small Business services
B. Service Providers
C. Large Enterprises
D. Large Enterprises & Service Providers
Welcome to the F5 Networks 101 - Application Delivery Fundamentals compiled
Study Guide. The purpose of this guide is to help you prepare for the F5 101 -
Application Delivery Fundamentals exam. The contents of this document are based
on the 101 - Application Delivery Fundamentals Blueprint Guide.
This study guide provides students with some of the basic foundational knowledge
required to pass the exam.
This study guide is a collection of information and therefore not a completely
original work. The majority of the information is compiled from sources that are
located on the Internet. All of the information locations are
referenced at the top of each topic instead of in an Appendix of this document.
This was done to help the reader access the referenced information easier
without having to search through a formal appendix. This
guide also references a book that should be basic reading for some of the topics
on this exam.
The F5 Certified team provides an official 101 - Application Delivery
Fundamentals Study Guide to all candidates. The F5 Certified Study Guide is a
list of reading material that will help any student build a broad
base of general knowledge that can assist in not only their exam success but
also in becoming a well-rounded systems engineer. The Resource Guide will be
available to the candidate through the certification.f5.com
website once they are qualified for the Application Delivery Fundamentals exam.
There are not any pre-requisite to this exam. This guide was prepared by an F5 employee but is not an official F5 document
and is not supported by F5 Networks.
Section 1 - OSI 5 Objective - 1.01 Explain, compare, and contrast the OSI layers
Objective - 1.02 Explain Protocols and Technologies Specific to the Data Link
Layer
Objective - 1.03 Explain protocols and apply technologies specific to the
network layer
Objective - 1.04 Explain the features and functionality of protocols and
technologies specific to the transport layer
Objective - 1.05 Explain the features and functionality of protocols and
technologies specific to the application layer
Section 2 - F5 Solutions and Technology Objective - 2.01 Articulate the role of F5 products
Objective - 2.02 Explain the purpose, use, and advantages of iRules
Objective - 2.03 Explain the purpose, use, and advantages of iApps
Objective - 2.04 Explain the purpose of and use cases for full proxy and packet
forwarding/packet based architectures
Objective - 2.05 Explain the advantages and configurations of high availability
(HA)
Section 3 – Load Balancing Essentials Objective - 3.01 Discuss the purpose of, use cases for, and key
considerations related to load balancing
Objective - 3.02 Differentiate between a client and server
Section 4 – Security Objective - 4.01 Compare and contrast positive and negative security models
Objective - 4.02 Explain the purpose of cryptographic services
Objective - 4.03 Describe the purpose and advantages of authentication
Objective - 4.04 Describe the purpose, advantages, and use cases of IPsec and
SSL VPN
Section 5 – Application Delivery Platforms Objective - 5.01 Describe the purpose, advantages, use cases, and challenges
associated with hardware based application delivery platforms and virtual
machines
Objective - 5.02 Describe the purpose of the various types of advanced
acceleration techniques
QUESTION: 1 To make complex access policies easier to manage, an administrator can
create a _______ containing several policy actions, and then add instances of it
within the policy? (Fill in)
A. Visual Policy Editor
B. Policy Editor
C. Visual Editor
D. Policy creator
Answer: A
QUESTION: 2 To make complex access policies easier to manage, an administrator can
create a policy containing several policy actions, and then add instances of it
within the policy using the ________. (Fill in)
A. Deployment Wizard
B. Setup Wizard
C. Policy Wizard
D. Visual Wizard
Answer: A
QUESTION: 3 The Policy Builder benefits include:
A. Doesn't require in depth web application knowledge
B. Only requires limited ASM knowledge
C. All of the above
D. Very low administrative impact
Answer: C
QUESTION: 4 APM administrators can configure access policies granting users which two
types of access?
A. CIFS access
B. Client/server access
C. Web application access
D. Proxy access
E. RDC access
Answer: D
QUESTION: 5 Which of the following is a benefit of using iRules?
A. They provide a secure connection between a client and LTM
B. They enable granular control of traffic
C. They can be used as templates for creating new applications
D. They can use Active Directory to authenticate and authorize users
E. They provide an automated way to create LTM objects
Answer: B
QUESTION: 6 APM provides access control lists at which two OSI layers? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 5
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 7
D. Layer 6
E. Layer 2
Answer: B,C
QUESTION: 7 TMOS is an F5 software module that runs on the BIG-IP platform.
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